I read the section two definition of “chemical and surgical mutilation” and it mentions altering sex organs to remove their biological functions. One of the biological functions of a penis is to produce sperm. So could this mean no more federal coverage for vasectomies as well as stuff like tubal litigation or hysterectomies? And yes, I know that people under 19 don’t usually get permanent sterilization procedures anyways, but I still wonder about this interpretation.
The phrase “chemical and surgical mutilation” means the use of puberty blockers, including GnRH agonists and other interventions, to delay the onset or progression of normally timed puberty in an individual who does not identify as his or her sex; the use of sex hormones, such as androgen blockers, estrogen, progesterone, or testosterone, to align an individual’s physical appearance with an identity that differs from his or her sex; and surgical procedures that attempt to transform an individual’s physical appearance to align with an identity that differs from his or her sex or that attempt to alter or remove an individual’s sexual organs to minimize or destroy their natural biological functions. This phrase sometimes is referred to as “gender affirming care.”
In some cultures, men don’t like women who haven’t had their labia and clitoris removed. Does that preference justify the practice?
Removing the foreskin removes thousands of nerve endings and desensitizes the glans.
I don’t recall advocating for it. I’m just saying it’s a thing, it won’t go away either and in the US it’s more of a traditional thing than religion thing. A it was only a few decades ago where it was considered “more hygenic”.